More Questions from Percentage

The value of a fixed asset depreciates at the rate of 10% of the value at the beginning of each year. If the value of the asset, two years ago, was ₹ 12000 more than the value of the asset one year ago, then find the present value of the asset, given that the asset was bought two years ago.

Aptitude Percentage Difficulty: Medium
Choose an option
  • A
    ₹ 14520
  • B
    ₹ 17520
  • C
    ₹ 96000
  • D
    ₹ 97200

Answer

Correct Answer: ₹ 97200

Explanation

### Concept & Logic This problem elegantly tests your understanding of what depreciation actually means year-over-year. The difference in value between any consecutive years is exactly equal to the depreciation amount for that specific year. Since the rate is applied to the value at the *beginning* of the year, the drop in value during the first year is simply the depreciation percentage applied to the initial purchase price. ### Step-by-Step Solution * **Define the Timeline:** * 2 years ago: Year 0 (Initial Purchase Price) * 1 year ago: Year 1 (After 1st depreciation) * Present: Year 2 (After 2nd depreciation) * **Analyze the Given Difference:** We are given that the difference between the value 2 years ago (Year 0) and 1 year ago (Year 1) is ₹ 12000. This difference is precisely the depreciation amount for the first year. * **Calculate Initial Value:** The first year's depreciation is $10\%$ of the initial value. $$ 10\% \text{ of Initial Value} = 12000 $$ $$ \text{Initial Value} = 12000 \times 10 = 120000 $$ * **Calculate Present Value (Year 2):** The asset depreciates at $10\%$ successively for 2 years. The fractional multiplier for a $10\%$ decrease is $0.9$. $$ \text{Present Value} = \text{Initial Value} \times (0.9)^2 $$ $$ \text{Present Value} = 120000 \times 0.81 $$ $$ \text{Present Value} = 97200 $$ ### Exam Strategy & Shortcut **Direct Percentage Mapping:** You don't need algebra for this. Read the phrase: "value two years ago was ₹ 12000 more than... one year ago". This immediately translates to "First year drop = 12000". Since the drop is $10\%$, the base is instantly $120,000$. To find the value after 2 years of $10\%$ drops, multiply by $0.81$ ($90\%$ of $90\%$). $12 \times 81 = 972$. Add the zeroes to get $97200$. This can be solved entirely mentally in 15 seconds. ### Common Pitfall Students often set up unnecessarily complex quadratic or algebraic equations, defining the final value as $x$ and working backwards through multiple steps. By recognizing that the absolute difference between Year 0 and Year 1 is just the simple interest of the first year, you bypass the complex algebra entirely. ### Final Answer **Therefore, the correct answer is ₹ 97200.**
Discussion & Comments
No comments yet. Be the first to comment!
Join Discussion