Radhey Lal markup the prices of sweets by 40% and he sold only 40% of those at this price. He sells half of the rest at 14 ²/ ₄% discount and rest at 25% discount. What is the net profit of Radhey Lal?

Let the numbers of diaries (produced) be 100 and the cost price of a diary be Rs. 1 then
Total cost incurred = 100 x 1 = 100
Total sale price = 32 x 0.75 + 60 x 1.4 = 108
Therefore profit = Rs. 8
Thus there is 8% profit.

Note : Marked price (i.e. expected) = 40% above the cost price.

You must know that the company is able to deliver only 90% of manufactured pens. So let k be the manufacturing price of a pen, then
Total income (including 25% profit) = 8000 x k x 1.25
Also this same income is obtained by selling 90% manufactured at Rs.10 which is equal to 7200 x 10.
Thus 8000 x K x 1.2 = 7200 x 10
? K = Rs. 7.2 ( 90% of 8000 = 7200)

From question, Chaudhary's profit = 10%.
So, Anupam's profit = 20%
Bhargava profit = 25%

Now Let cost price for Anupam = Rs. 100
So cost price for Bhargava = 120
Cost price for Chaudhary = 150
Cost price for Dara Singh = 165

Since the cost price for Dara singh is 2805 which is 17 times of 165. So the cost price for Bhargava is 120 x 17 = Rs. 2040.

Total cost price = 1000 x 1.2 = Rs. 1200
Expected selling price = 700 x selling price per toys = 1200 X 1.1666 = 1400
? Selling price per toys = Rs. 2 per toy
Now the real selling price = 750 x 2 = Rs.1500
? Profit = Rs. 300 = (1500 - 1200)
? Profit % = ( 300 / 1200 ) x 100 = 25%

Let the CP be 100 and % mark up be k% then
MP = 100 + k

100 + k is also expected SP but actual SP = 100 + k / 2
? [(100 + k / 2)] / k = (200 / 3) x 100 (= 66.66%)
? k = 300
? CP = 100 and MP = 400
Finally SP = 400 / 2 = 200
? Discount = 200 / 400 X 100 = 50%

Consider actual price of 1 g goods = Re. 1.
He sells the product equals to Rs. 90 only (10% less weighing)
Again MP = Rs.1.8 and SP = 1.35 for 1 g.
Thus he gives the goods worth Rs. 90 and charges Rs. 135 after 25% discount.

Thus the profit % = [(135 - 90) / 90 ] x 100
= 50%

Let the actual cost price of an article be Rs.1 (in place of x)
Now the purchases goods worth Rs. 120 and pays Rs. 80, since 20% discount is allowed.
So the CP = 80/120 = 2/3
Again MP = 180, SP = 135 (since 25% discount)
Thus the trader sells goods worth Rs.90 instead of 100 g and charges Rs. 135. Therefore the effective SP = 135/90 = 3/2

Therefore Profit (%) = [(3/2 - 2/3 ) / (2/3)] x 100 = 125%

Given,
CP of p apples = q
? CP of 1 apple = q/p
and SP of q apples = p
? SP of 1 apple = p/q

Given, p < q
? Loss = q/p - p/q = (q² - p²) / pq
And Loss% = (Loss/CP) x 100
= {(q² - p²)/pq} /(q/p)] x 100
= (q² - p²)/q² x 100

Therefore, when p < q , then the person had a loos which is given by
100 x (q² - p²/q²)% loss.

Let CP = ? 100
Then, SP = ? 140
Let the profit made by the 2nd dealer = N%
Then, (100 + N)% of 120% of ? 100 = ? 140
? [(100 + N)/100 x (120/100) ] / 100 = 140
? 6(100 + N) = 700
? 600 + 6N = 700
? 6N = 100
? N = (100/6)% = (50/3) %
= 16²/₃

Let cost price of a wall clock = ? N
? Cost price of a watch = ? (390 - N)
According to the question,
{(N x 10)/100} + {(390 - N) x 15}/100 = 51.50
? 390 x 15 - 5N = 51.50 x 100
? 5N = 5850 - 5150 = 700
? N = 700/5 = 140

? Required difference = (390 - N) - N
= 390 - (2 x 140)
= 390 - 280 = 110
= ? 110