Let the numbers of diaries (produced) be 100 and the cost price of a diary be Rs. 1 then
Total cost incurred = 100 x 1 = 100
Total sale price = 32 x 0.75 + 60 x 1.4 = 108
Therefore profit = Rs. 8
Thus there is 8% profit.
Note : Marked price (i.e. expected) = 40% above the cost price.
You must know that the company is able to deliver only 90% of manufactured pens. So let k be the manufacturing price of a pen, then
Total income (including 25% profit) = 8000 x k x 1.25
Also this same income is obtained by selling 90% manufactured at Rs.10 which is equal to 7200 x 10.
Thus 8000 x K x 1.2 = 7200 x 10
? K = Rs. 7.2 ( 90% of 8000 = 7200)
From question, Chaudhary's profit = 10%.
So, Anupam's profit = 20%
Bhargava profit = 25%
Now Let cost price for Anupam = Rs. 100
So cost price for Bhargava = 120
Cost price for Chaudhary = 150
Cost price for Dara Singh = 165
Since the cost price for Dara singh is 2805 which is 17 times of 165. So the cost price for Bhargava is 120 x 17 = Rs. 2040.
Total cost price = 1000 x 1.2 = Rs. 1200
Expected selling price = 700 x selling price per toys = 1200 X 1.1666 = 1400
? Selling price per toys = Rs. 2 per toy
Now the real selling price = 750 x 2 = Rs.1500
? Profit = Rs. 300 = (1500 - 1200)
? Profit % = ( 300 / 1200 ) x 100 = 25%
Let the CP be 100 and % mark up be k% then
MP = 100 + k
100 + k is also expected SP but actual SP = 100 + k / 2
? [(100 + k / 2)] / k = (200 / 3) x 100 (= 66.66%)
? k = 300
? CP = 100 and MP = 400
Finally SP = 400 / 2 = 200
? Discount = 200 / 400 X 100 = 50%
The maximum possible profit = maximum possible difference in SP and CP.
It means SP be maximum and CP be minimum
CP (min) = Rs. 399
19 x m = 399, where m is an integer.
Again SP (max) = Rs. 697, which is very close to 699
Here 697 = 17 k, k is a positive integer.
So, the maximum profit = 697 - 399 = Rs. 298
Let the number of the sweets be 100 and the cost price of the one piece of sweet = Re.1
Then, total cost price = 100 x 1 = Rs. 100
Total sale price = (40 x 1.4) + (30 x 1.2) + (30 x 1.05) =123.5
? Profit (%) = 123.5 - 100 = 23.5%
Consider actual price of 1 g goods = Re. 1.
He sells the product equals to Rs. 90 only (10% less weighing)
Again MP = Rs.1.8 and SP = 1.35 for 1 g.
Thus he gives the goods worth Rs. 90 and charges Rs. 135 after 25% discount.
Thus the profit % = [(135 - 90) / 90 ] x 100
= 50%
Let the actual cost price of an article be Rs.1 (in place of x)
Now the purchases goods worth Rs. 120 and pays Rs. 80, since 20% discount is allowed.
So the CP = 80/120 = 2/3
Again MP = 180, SP = 135 (since 25% discount)
Thus the trader sells goods worth Rs.90 instead of 100 g and charges Rs. 135. Therefore the effective SP = 135/90 = 3/2
Therefore Profit (%) = [(3/2 - 2/3 ) / (2/3)] x 100 = 125%
Given,
CP of p apples = q
? CP of 1 apple = q/p
and SP of q apples = p
? SP of 1 apple = p/q
Given, p < q
? Loss = q/p - p/q = (q2 - p2) / pq
And Loss% = (Loss/CP) x 100
= {(q2 - p2)/pq} /(q/p)] x 100
= (q2 - p2)/q2 x 100
Therefore, when p < q , then the person had a loos which is given by
100 x (q2 - p2/q2)% loss.
Let CP = ? 100
Then, SP = ? 140
Let the profit made by the 2nd dealer = N%
Then, (100 + N)% of 120% of ? 100 = ? 140
? [(100 + N)/100 x (120/100) ] / 100 = 140
? 6(100 + N) = 700
? 600 + 6N = 700
? 6N = 100
? N = (100/6)% = (50/3) %
= 162/3
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