Statement:
India is suffering because citizens have given and taken votes based on caste/religion and not principles.
Assumptions:
I. The day of value-based voting are numbered in India.
II. The voting based on principles has the potential to nullify the problems created by the politics of caste and religion.

I is not implicit because it implies that value-based voting still prevails, though it does not have too long a future. But the statement clearly suggests that value-based voting is absent. What about Assumption II, which talks of the potential of value-based voting? Well, the only potential the speaker has in mind is that it's a step in the positive direction. But can it undo what has been done ? we don't know.