if only assumption II is implicit.
The both assumption we cannot conclude from given statement.
if neither I nor II is implicit.
I is implicit in the tone of warning. II is implicit because when we stop people from doing something, we assume that they generally do so.
When we say that "reckless partying can lead to health problems", we assume that either heavy drinking or dancing ----we can't think of any other illness-causing element-----is the culprit.
Here "others ' cost " means others ' peace, others' safety..... but certainly not others' expenses. Hence I is not implicit. II is implicit; that is why Delhi police has issued the statement.
West Asia has a large stock of oil resources; that is why they have monopoly in this sector. Similarly, the speaker is assuming that India has human resources (in the form of IT entrepreneurs) which will lead it to become no. 1 in this field or contribute a large part to India's economy. Hence both are implicit.
if both I and II are implicit.
The way the poor performance on excise and customs fronts has been shown to be the cause of the "huge revenue deficit" makes I implicit. Similarly, II is implicit from the way it affected customs and excise.
Assumption I is in fact a conclusion. Assumption II is implicit from the word "dis-intermediate".
I is implicit from the " difference" being pointed out. II is beyond the scope of the statement.
Talks for second tranche is expected only after talks for the first tranche have been finalised. But the actual amount may still be in the pipeline.
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